Bible abuse directed at homosexuals - debunked/revealed

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If translated word for word, Leviticus 18:22 is roughly ‘You shall not lie with (adult) man beds (plural noun) a woman/wife (singular noun).’ This final two-noun phrase is unclear in the original Hebrew; it is shared with Leviticus 20:13 (yet sometimes translated differently in the two verses), and it doesn’t occur anywhere else in the Bible. ‘Beds of a woman’ is generally how the phrase is translated into English — although anyone even loosely familiar with the culture of the time is aware that women owned nothing, could own nothing (see the story of widows Ruth and Naomi). Grammatically the relationship in Hebrew is quite different. ‘Woman/wife’ here have the relationship to ‘beds’ as in the phrase ‘the bedding of a woman/wife,’ i.e., the woman is the object of ‘beds,’ not the possessor of them. This still leaves the phrase fairly obscure, but in spite of its meaning in Hebrew, out of tradition a single basic line of thought nevertheless characterizes English translations.


Is the death penalty supposedly assigned to practicing homosexual males – though not among the Ten Commandments – somehow more important than the proscription in the Commandments against working on the Sabbath? Or perhaps more important than the death penalty assigned to someone who curses his/her parent (Leviticus 20:9) or who commits adultery (Leviticus 20:10)?



This passage could fairly well be translated ‘If a man has sexual intercourse with another man in the bed of a woman (or as part of a cult-like ritual), the two shall be cast out of society.’ You can see how this would not appeal to rabid fundamentalists.
 
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How I understand it is, the anti homosexual passages were probably anti pedophilia and anti prositute (husband having sex with male prostitute. male-boy sex was rampant in those times
 

eyebrows

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Barraco Bama made it illegal for me to drive around with the windows down and throw bibles around at Pride.
 

Userr

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thebible was obviously anti gay

you can just look at the soruoundding relgiions and theclear interputation of it that the people practiced
 
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thebible was obviously anti gay

you can just look at the soruoundding relgiions and theclear interputation of it that the people practiced
In pre-modern Islam there was a "widespread conviction that beardless youths possessed a temptation to adult men as a whole, and not merely to a small minority of deviants."
Muslim—often Sufi—poets in medieval Arab lands and in Persia wrote odes to the beautiful wine boys who served them in the taverns. In many areas the practice survived into modern times, as documented by Richard Francis Burton, André Gide, and others. Homoerotic themes were present in poetry and other literature written by some Muslims from the medieval period onwards and which celebrated love between men. In fact these were more common than expressions of attraction to women.
The anti gay was probably anti pedophilia: man boy sex.

it was a big problem back then as dimorphism was smaller (no makeup, less gendered clothes, etc): its part of regular straight male sexuality so having religions that detest it is probably a good thing. it makes the boys who got fucked mentally ill and makes men cheat on their wives
 

Userr

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The anti gay was probably anti pedophilia: man boy sex.

it was a big problem back then as dimorphism was smaller back then (no makeup, less gendered clothes, etc): its part of regular straight male sexuality so having religions that detest it is probably a good thing. it makes the boys who got fucked mentally ill and makes men cheat on their wives
you are speculating more then the ones who sees that its clearly anti gay
 
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Supreme Cunt

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At the hidden core of homophobia is disgust for sex that is non-procreate.
It's primitive defense mechanism from our biology.
 
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At the hidden core of homophobia is disgust for sex that is non-procreate.
It's primitive defense mechanism from our biology.
when the bible was written do you think theres a good chance the anti homosexual passages were aimed towards man-boy couples? so that it was more like anti-husband cheating on his wife with a prostitute boy
 

Supreme Cunt

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when the bible was written do you think theres a good chance the anti homosexual passages were aimed towards man-boy couples? so that it was more like anti-husband cheating on his wife with a prostitute boy
yes because the ancient greek/roman world was notorious for pederasty.
 
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